First Principles Thinking: formula pattern
B is correct. Use $\mathrm{MoneyCon} = \mathrm{AnnConvexity} \times PV_{Full}$. Substituting gives USD 81.701 \times \text{GBP }50{,}000{,}000 = \text{GBP }4{,}085{,}033{,}604$. So option B is correct.
Why first distractor is incorrect (formula error): A is far too small because money convexity multiplies by the full position value, not by a reduced base.
Why second distractor is incorrect: C is the money convexity adjustment for a 100 bp move, not money convexity itself.