First Principles: No Diversification with Perfect Correlation
When two assets are perfectly positively correlated and have the same volatility, combining them does not reduce risk compared with holding either one individually. The portfolio volatility is simply the weighted average of individual volatilities.
Step 1: Portfolio Volatility
For a two-asset portfolio with volatilities \(\sigma_1, \sigma_2\), weights \(w_1, w_2\), and correlation \(\rho_{12}\), the portfolio variance is
$$\sigma_p^2 = w_1^2 \sigma_1^2 + w_2^2 \sigma_2^2 + 2 w_1 w_2 \sigma_1 \sigma_2 \rho_{12}$$
Here, \(w_1 = w_2 = 0.5\), \(\sigma_1 = \sigma_2 = 0.12\), and \(\rho_{12} = 1\).
Compute:
$$\sigma_p^2 = 0.5^2(0.12)^2 + 0.5^2(0.12)^2 + 2(0.5)(0.5)(0.12)(0.12)(1)$$
$$= 0.25(0.0144) + 0.25(0.0144) + 0.5(0.0144) = 0.0144$$
Thus \(\sigma_p = 0.12\), the same as each asset’s volatility.
Step 2: Diversification Ratio
Weighted average of constituent volatilities:
$$\sum w_i \sigma_i = 0.5(0.12) + 0.5(0.12) = 0.12$$
Diversification ratio:
$$DR = \frac{0.12}{0.12} = 1.00$$
Interpretation
A diversification ratio of 1 means no diversification benefit: the portfolio volatility equals the weighted average of individual volatilities. This is exactly what we expect when assets are perfectly positively correlated and have identical volatilities.
A is correct because the DR must be 1 in this edge case of zero diversification benefit.
B and C are incorrect because they imply that combining the assets reduced risk relative to the constituents, which cannot happen under perfect positive correlation and equal volatility.